immunology questions and answers pdf,

1. The most scientific method to identify which triggers may be causing my nasal allergies is to:

A. Track the time of year when my symptoms occur

B. Have an allergist perform a skin test

C. Have an allergist run a blood test

D. There is no good way to know whatt

P'm allergic to

Ans: B and/or C

2. Which is the most effective treatment for nasal allergies?

A. Over-the-counter antihistamines

B. Prescription antihistamines

C. Antihistamine decongestant

combination pills

D. Nasal corticosteroid sprays

Ans. D

      3. Which one of the following is least   likely to trigger asthma?

A. Strenuous exercise

B. A common cold

C. Reading the newspaper

D. Cat dander

Ans: C

4. Which of the following factors can pre-dispose you to having allergies?

A. A family history of allergies

B. Environmental Conditions

C. Number and type of Exposures

D. Emotional factors

E. All of the above

Ans: E

5. Hypersensitivity of which system of your body creates an allergic response?

A. Skin

B. Immune System

C. Circulatory Systemn

D. Pulmonary System

Ans:C

6. Which of the following treatments can be used to reduce allergic reactions to unavoidable substances?

A. Milk thistle three times daily

B. Mist inhalation therapy

C. Regularly wearing a face mask

D. Desensitization (Alergy shots)

Ans:D

7. Which of the following is the most

commonly prescribed treatment for hives?

A. Oral antihistamines

B. Oral corticosteroids such as prednisone

C. Epinephrine (adrenaline)

D. Aspirin

Ans:A

8. Which of the following does NOT

reduce or delay allergies in children?

A. Reducing dust-collecting items

B. Limiting exposure early in life to

indoor furry pets

C. Avoiding smoking in and around the

house

D. Exclusively wearing cotton clothes

allergies

Ans:D

9. Which of these body systems

causes allergic reactions?

A. Lymph

B. Immuune

C. Nervous

D. Autonomic

Ans:B

10. An allergen is anything that triggers an allergic or hypersensitive response.

Which of these could be an allergen?

A. Dust

B. Food

C. Nickel jewelry

D. All of the above

Ans:B

11. What does the body release to

combat allergens?

A. Plasma

B. Epinephrine

C. Histamine

D. Red Blood cells

Ans:C

12. The most severe form of allergic

reaction is called anaphylaxis. What

happens?

A. Blood pressure drops

B. Breathing becomes difficult

C. Runny nose develops

D.A and B

Ans:D

13. Which of these symptoms may

indicate a food allergy?

A. Skin rash

B. Runny nose

C. Diarrhea

D. Nausea

Ans: A

14. Which of these foods are most

likely to trigger an allergy?

A. Shellfish

B. Wheat

C. Celery

D. A and B

Ans: D

15. More Americans are developing

a sensitivity to the plant proteins in

latex materials or the chemical

additives used in manufacturing the

materials. Who's most at risk of

developing a latex allergy?

A. Patients who undergo numerous

medical procedures

B. Health care workers

C. Children

D. A and B

Ans: D

16. Pediatricians who treat children

with egg allergies are cautious about using certain vaccines because they may be grown in an egg medium. Which of these vaccines warrant caution?

A. MMR

B. Flu

C. Polio

D. A and B

Ans: D

17. Dust mites trigger indoor respiratory allergies. Where are you most likely to find them in the home?

A. Carpet

B. Beds

C. Drapes

D. All of the above

Ans: B

18. How long ago was asthma

identified as an ailment?

A. 1,000 years ago

B. 500 years ago

C. 100 years ago

D. 50 years ago

Ans: A

19. What are the symptoms of asthma?

A. Tightness in the chest

B. Wheezing

C. Sneezing

D. A and B

Ans: D

20. Which of these can trigger an

asthma attack?

A. Exercise

B. Aspirin

C. Laughing

D. All of the above

Ans: D

21. Which of these allergens are

most likely to induce asthma?

A. Ragweed

B. Cockroaches

C. Feathers

D. B and CC

Ans: D

22. Which of these foods should children with asthma avoid?

A. Dairy products

B. All nuts

C. Foods with preservatives

D. None of the above

Ans: D

23. Which of these, if eaten on a weekly basis, can help reduce chronic coughing and wheezing in asthmatic children?

A. Broccoli

B. Oranges

C. Apples

D. Fish

Ans: B

24.Which sports are best for asthmatics?

A. Baseball

B. Swimming

C. Sprinting

D. All of the above

Ans:D

25. What can you do to reduce exposure to outdoor asthma triggers?

A. Exercise outdoors on high ozone days

B. Schedule camping trips in May, June

or August through October

C. Pursue outdoor sports in cold weather

D. None of the above

Ans: D

26. Which of these alternative health treatments have reduced symptoms in children?

A. Nightly massages

B. Evening primrose herb

C. Yoga

D. Aromatherapy

Ans: A

27. What should you do if pet hair triggers your asthma?

A. Bathe the pet weekly

B. Keep the pet outside if possible

C. Own a dog, not a cat

D. All of the above

Ans: D

28. People who have atopic dermatitis also may have:

A. Asthma

B. Allergies

C. Acne

D. A andB

Ans: D

29. Which group of people is more

likely to develop atopic dermatitis?

A. Infants and young children

B. Teenagers

C. Adults 20 to 49

D. Older adults

Ans: A

30. One characteristic of atopic dermatitis is:

A. It affects the face more than the rest

of the body

B. It can leave pockmarks on the skin

C. It cycles through periods of flares

and remissions

D. It is worse in autumn

Ans: C

31. Atopic dermatitis is also often called:

A. Acne

B. Eczemna

C. Psoriasis

D. Pimples

Ans: B

32. In the past, doctors thought which of these caused atopic dermatitis?

A. Too much sun

B. An emotional disorder

C. Food allergies

D. Dust mite allergy

Ans: B

33. Which is a symptom of atopic

dermatitis?

A. Blisters on the palms of hands and

soles of feet

B. Itchy, inflamed skin

C. Scaly patches of skin on the scalp

D. Coin-shaped patches of irritated

skin on the arms and lower legs

Ans: B

34. Some people with atopic dermatitis develop:

A. Thick, leathery skin

B. Red, scaling skin

C. Small raised bumps on the skin

D. All of the above

Ans: D

35. The skin of a person with atopic

dermatitis is more susceptible to:

A. Skin infections

B. Warts

C. Herpes Simplex

D. All of the above

Ans: D

36. Match the immune deficiency in

Wiskott-Aldrich symdrome with the

appropriate lab test:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. CD11 by flow cytometry

C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test,

Oxidated burst)

D. Platelet count and morphology

Ans: D

37. The skin of a person with atopic

dermatitis is more susceptible to:

A. Skin infections

B. Warts

C. Herpes simplex

D. All of the above

Ans: D

38. Match the immune deficiency in

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome with the

appropriate lab test:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. CD11 by flow cytometry

c. Serum calcium

E. Platelet count and morphology

Ans: E

39. Match the immune deficiency in

Di George anomaly with the appropriate lab test:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. CD11 by flow cytometry

C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test,

Oxidated burst)

D. Serum calcium

Ans: D

40. Match the immune deficiency in Bruton's disease with the appropriate lab test:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. CD11 by flow cytometry

C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test,

oxidated burst)

D. Serum calcium

Ans: A

41. Match the immune deficiency in

Leukocyte adhesion defect with the

appropriate lab test:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. CD11 by flow cytometry

C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test,

oxidated burst)

D. Serum calcium

Ans: B

42. Match the immune deficiency in

Chronic Granulomatous disease

with the appropriate lab test:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. CD11 by flow cytometry

C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test,

Oxidated burst)

D. Serum calcium

Ans: C

43. State one from airborne substances listed below is Perennial allergen:

A. Dust mites

B. Sagebrush

C. Ragweed

D. Perfume

Ans: A

44. State one from airborne substances listed below is Non-IgE mediated irritant:

A. Dust mites

B. Cat dander

C. Ragweed

D. Sagebrush

E. Cigarette smoke

Ans: E

45. State one from airborne substances listed below is Seasonal allergen:

A. Dust mites

B. Cat dander

C. Ragweed

D. Perfume

Ans: C

46. In June, a 24-year-old female

presents with angioedema of the

face, including eyelids and lips. She

has had two previous similar

episodes. Her father has also had

recurrent angiodema of the face

and extremities. Neither has

associated pruritis with the

angioedema. Which diagnosis is

suggested?

A. Hereditary angioedema

B. Food allergy

C. Enterovirus infection

D. Idiopathic angioedema

E. An ACE inhibitor was prescribed by

her internist for hypertension

Ans: A

47. In June, a 24-year-old female

presents with angioedema of the

face, including eyelids and lips. She

has had two previous similar

episodes. She always has associated

gas and diarrhea with the

angioedema. She was previously

skin tested and found to have

sensitivities to milk, ragweed and

molds. Which diagnosis is

suggested?

A. Hereditary angioedema

B. Food allergy

C. Enterovirus infection

D. Idiopathic angioedema

E. An ACE inhibitor was prescribed by

her internist for hypertension

Ans:B

48. In June, a 24-year-old female

presents with angioedema of the

face, including eyelids and lips. She

has had two previous similar

episodes. This episode, like the

previous ones, occurred during the

summer and was accompanied by

diarrhea, low grade fever once and

classical urticarial lesions.

A. Hereditary angioedema

B. Food allergy

C. Enterovirus infection

D. Idiopathic angioedema

E. An ACE inhibitor was prescribed by

her internist for hypertension

Ans: D

49. Hereditary angioedema is:

A. Inherited as an autosomal recessive

disorder

B. Usually associated with urticaria

C.Usually responsive to

antihistamines

D. Can be managed with Danazol

(synthetic androgenic

Ans: D

50. Which of the following food

allergies is most likely outgrown?

A. Milk

B. Peanut

C. Walnuts

D. Shellfish

Ans: A

51. Indications for immunotherapy

for hymenoptera allergy:

A. Children and adults with a history

of a life-threatening reaction to a

hymenoptera sting

B. People ho have a history of a large

local skin reaction that gets worse

with each sting

C. Children with a history of

generalized urticaria after a sting

D. Anyone with a family history of an

allergic reaction to a hymenoptera

sting

Ans: A

52. Eczema in an infant most

commonly occurs in/on the:

A. Antecubitutal and Popliteal fossae

B. Perineal region

C. Scalp and flexural areas

D. Extensor surface of arm and legs

Ans: C

53. As part of the work up of adult

asthma, which of the following

reproducible, pre and post

bronchodilator pulmonary function

test results would be interpreted as

showing significant reversibility?

A. a 15% increase in FEF 25-75%

B. a 15% increase in FEV1 (425 ml

improvement)

C. a 20% increase in FEV1 (180 ml

improvement)

D. a 15% increase in FEV1/FVC ratio

Ans: B

54. All of the following medications

can affect late phase (including by

prophylaxis of the immediate

allergic response) response in

asthma except:

A. Corticosteroids

B. Leukotriene modifiers

C. Cromolyn sodium

D. Albuterol

Ans: D

55. Reasonable recommendations

for a patient with moderate

persistent asthma p0orly controlled

on low dose inhaled corticosteroids

include all except:

A. Add salmeterol inhaler BID

B. Double the dose of inhaled

corticosteroid

C. Add a leukotriene modifier

D. Add nebulized cromolyn BID

Ans: D

56. Which of the following is a clear

indication for penicillin allergy skin

testing:

A. A 40-year-old patient with a history

of anaphylaxis after ampicillin ten

years ago. The patient now has

endocarditis. Culture is positive for a

streptococcal organism sensitive only

to penicillin.

B. A 26-year-old patient with a history

of Steven-Johnson's Syndrome after

receiving amoxicillin.

C. A 65-year-old ICU patient receiving

penicillin and vancomycin with

flushing and hypotension.

D.A 39-year-old female who, eleven

days after taking penicillin for a strep

pharyngitis, develops angioedema,

arthralgias, urticaria and a low grade

fever.

Ans: A

57. The major advantage of second

generation antihistamines is:

A. They do cross the blood brain

barrier and help patients to relax

B. They are very long acting

C. They cause decongestion as well as

decreasing rhinorrhea

D. They minimally cross the blood

brain barrier and have a decreased

sedation effect

Ans: D

58. Which of the following types of

infection are increased in patients

with humoral or B-cell immune

deficiencies?

A. Sinusitis

B. Otitis media

C. Pneumonia

D. All of the above

Ans: D

59. The most common cause of

chronic urticaria, especially in

adults, is:

A. Food allergy

B. Connective tissue disease

D. Idiopathic

Ans: A

60. Congenital absence of the late

complement components (C5, C6,

C7, C8) is most often associated

with:

A. Viral infections

B. Recurrent Neisserial infections

C. Lupus-like disease

D. Candidiasis

Ans: B

61. Congenital comnplement

deficiencies are best screened by

which of the following laboratory

tests:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. NBT

C. Total CH50

D. C3, C4 and properdin

Ans: C

62. All of the following except one

can be useful in managing atopic

dermatitis:

A. Skin lubrication/moisturization

B. Controlling pruitus to reduce

scratching

C. Immunotherapy (allergy injections)

D. Avoiding specific food allergy

triggers

Ans: C

63. All of the following regarding

aspirin intolerance are true except:

A. Patients with asthma are at no

greater risk for aspirin intolerance

than the general population

B. A proposed mechanism of aspirin

intolerance involves aspirin's effect on

arachidonic acid metabolism

C. There is cross reactivity between

aspirin and NSAID intolerance

Ans: A

64. Which of the following tests

would be most useful in helping to

diagnose asthma:

A. Diffusing capacity

B. Pre and post bronchodilator FEV1

D. Pulmonary funetions pre- and post-

methacholine challenge

E. B and D

Ans: E

65. Conditions which may worsen asthma include (Identify the one

incorrect choice):

A. Diabetes Mellitus

B. Sinusitis

C. Pregnancy

D. Cardiac disease

Ans: A

66. Which of the following is the

most common underlying cause of

asthma

(Choose the one best answer)

A. Beta Blocker sensitivity

B. Aspirin sensitivity

C. Bronchitis

E. Inhalant allergies

Ans: E

67. Inhaled corticosteroids (Choose

the one incorrect answer):

A. Can be useful in patients who have

persistent asthma

B. Can be useful in patients who

require rescue inhaler 1-2 times per

week

C. Can be used in 6-12 year-old

children with asthma

D. Acutely increase peak flow rate, a

measure of large airway function

Ans: D

68. A 40-year-old male presents to

the Emergency Room complaining

of hives, wheezing and difficulty

breathing following an insect sting.

Pulse is 120 beats/min. BP is 100/56.

Immediate therapy should include

which one of the following:

A. Diphenhydramine 50 mg IV

B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV

C. Epinephrine 0.3 ml (1:1000 aqueous)

sub Q or IM

D. Cholorpheniramine 8 mg orally

Ans: C

69. A 40-year-old male presents to

the Emergency Room complaining

of hives, wheezing and difñculty

breathing following an insect sting

Pulse is 120 beats/min. BP is 100/56.

After Epinephrine is administered

and quick assessment of the patient

is done, you determine that the

patient is moving air adequately

and is not in shock. The next

medication to give the patient

immediately is:

A. Diphenhydramine 50 mg IV

B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV

C. Epinephrine 0.3 ml (1:1000 aqueous)

sub Q or IM

D. Cholorpheniramine 8 mg orally

Ans: B

70. Which of the following

symptoms is least common in

patients with sinusitis?

A. Nasal congestion

B. Cough

C. Fever

D. "Post-nasal" drip

Ans: B

71. Which of the following would

not suggest a FISH (Fluorescence In

Situ Hybridization) test to identify

DiGeorge syndrome?

A. Recurrent otitis media in a 3-year-

old

B. Neonatal tetany

C. Pervasive developmental delay in a

6-year-old female

D. Recurrent/persistent otitis and

diarrhea in a 6-month-old

Ans: C

72. Hereditary angioedema (C1

inhibitor deficiency) is

characterized by all of the following

except:

A. Frequent abdominal pain

B. Urticaria or hives

C. Low C4 levels during and between

attacks

D. Family history of swelling

Ans: B

73. Common causes of acute

urticaria include all of the following

except:

A. Food allergy

C.Viral infection

D. Inhalant allergy

Ans: D

74. The two most common

superinfections in atopic dermatitis

are due to:

A. Staph aureus and Herpes simplex

B. Staph epidermidis and cutaneous

viral infections

C. Staph aureus and Candida

D. Staph epidermidis and Candida

Ans: A

75. The most common cause of

contact dermatitis in general is:

A. Latex

B. Poison ivy, poison oak and poison

sumac

C. Nickel

D. Dark-colored pigments in shoes and

clothing

Ans: B

76. The one true statement about

anaphylaxis is

A. There are always skin findings

rash, angioedema, etc.

B. People with recurrent anaphylaxis

with no identifiable cause (idiopathic)

are the most likely to carry adrenalin

C. After adrenalin, the most important

medication to administer immediately

is steroids

D. After adrenalin, the most important

medication to administer promptly is

an H2 blocker

Ans: C

77. Complement activation is a part

of which type of hypersensitivity

reaction?

A. Type I

B. Type II and Type III

C. Type IV

D. Type III and IV

Ans: B

78. After playing in the bushes

during a camping trip, a 7-year-old

girl complains of intense itching &

blistering of the hands, arms, &

legs. What is the most likely

condition& what type of

hypersensitivity reaction is she

displaying?

A. Hives; Type I reaction

B. Hives; Type IV reaction

C. Contact Dermatitis; Type IV reaction

D. Contact Dermatitis; Type I reaci

Ans: C

79. Megakaryocytes are minimally

immunoresponsive. What type of

cell do megakaryocytes give rise to?

A. RBC

B. Platelets

C. Leukocytes

D. Monocytes

Ans: B

80. A latent, measles-like viral

infection &, presumably, a defect in

cellular immunity is associated with

which of the following diseases?

A. Hereditary angioedema

B. Systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)

C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

(SSPE)

D. DiGeorge syndrome

Ans: C

81. In HIV infection, reverse transcription describes which of the following?

A. Converting viral DNA into RNA

B. Converting viral RNA into DNA

C. Converting proteins into viral RNA

D. Both A and B

Ans: B

82. Which of these produces and secretes antibodies in the body?

A. Bacteria

B. Plasma Cell

C. Red blood cell

D. Virus

Ans: B

83. What host cell membrane structures enable the attachment of a virus like human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

A. Ion channels

B. Nuclear pores

C. Ribosomes

D. Receptors

Ans: D

84. Name the process a cell such as a

neutrophil or a macrophage uses to

ingest (eat) its prey.

A. Halitosis

B. Chemotaxis

C. Botulism

D. Phagocytosis

Ans: D

85. What is an important

mechanism white blood cells use to

kill bacteria, fungi and other

invading pathogens?

A. Asphyxiation

B. Oxidative activity

C. Fright

D. Drowning

Ans: B

86. What is the term applied to

white blood cells squeezing between

endothelial cells lining the blood

vessel to reach the site of an

infection?

A. Diapedesis

B. Chemotaxis

C. Phagocytosis

D. Enucleation

Ans: A

87. What's a specific term for a

bacterial or other foreign protein

that initiates antibody production

by the body?

A. Peptide

B. MHC II molecule

C. Complement

D. Antigen

Ans: D

88. What product of the immune

system attaches to bacteria, making

them easier to eat by white blood

cells?

A. Hemoglobin

B. Antibody

C. Antigen

D. Both A and B

Ans: B

89.What HIV protein helps insert

the HIV provirus into the hosts

DNA?

A. Transcriptase

B. Integrase

C. Protease

D. Dismutase

Ans: B

90. What main characteristic of

HIV makes the virus difficult to

treat with a single ?

A.

B. Impenetrable capsule

C. Its ability to mutate

D. Its environmental durability

Ans: C

91. Name the subgroups of B:

A. Bx type

C. A and B

B. Bmtype

D. None

Ans: C

93. The expression of A and B genes appears to be dependent on another gene called:

A. Hgene

C. Ngene

B. Mgene

D. E gene

Ans: A

94. Anti-H very rarely occurs as cold reactive agglutinin in individuals with very low levels of:

A. Hantigens on their cells

B. M antigens on their cells

C. A and B

D.All

Ans: A

95. The development of monoclonal antibodies obtained from cultures of cells secreting antibodies called:

A.          Hybridomas

B.           B. Antibiomas

D. Plasmacytomas

   C. Sarcomas

Ans: A

96. Blood grouping sera should meet the following requirements:

A. It should have titre of recommended potency

B. It should be free of cold agglutinins

C. It should be free of so-called irregular agglutinins

D. It should not form rouleaux when mixed with red cells

E. lt should be clear, of normal colour and free of cells or any other particles, not hemolysed, icteric or chylous and tree of complement

F. All of the above

Ans: F

THANK YOU FOR WATCHING

Shailesh Gupta

www.medicaltubers.blogspot.com